John Chrysostom
The question was important. Therefore the Apostle brings forward many arguments and strives by every means to remove the difficulty.
If it was strange and unexpected that the Jews perished after so many promises, then it seems still stranger that we, who expected nothing of the kind, entered into their inheritance.
The same thing happened as if a king's son, to whom succession to the throne after the king had been promised, were lowered into the rank of those deprived of civic rights. In his place a man taken from prison, guilty of countless crimes and condemned to death, received the authority belonging to the first.
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What can be said about this? That the son is unworthy? But the other is also unworthy, indeed much more so. Therefore either both should have been punished together or both honored together.
Something like this, I say, happened with the Gentiles and the Jews, and in a way still more strange. That all were unworthy, the Apostle declared above when he said: "All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God" (Rom 3:23).
But the extraordinary thing is that, while all were unworthy, the Gentiles alone were saved.
After this one may raise another question. If God did not intend to fulfill the promises given to the Jews, why did He give them? Only men, not knowing the future and often being deceived, promise gifts to those unworthy to receive them.
But He Who foresees present and future, and Who clearly knew that the Jews would become unworthy of the promises and therefore would receive nothing of what was said, why did He give the promises?
How, then, did Paul resolve this? He showed who the Israel is to whom God gave the promises. Once this was shown, it was also proved that all the promises had been fulfilled.
Pointing to this, he said: "For not all who are of Israel are Israel" (Rom 9:6). The Apostle used the name Israel, not Jacob, because this name was a sign of his virtue, righteousness, the gift received from above, and the fact that Jacob saw God.
But you will say: all sinned and fall short of the glory of God. If all sinned, why were some saved and others lost? Because not all wished to come, although by God's will all were saved, since all were called.
For the moment, however, the Apostle does not say this. He resolves the question more broadly, deriving a new question from other examples, just as earlier he resolved the greatest difficulty by another difficulty.
When the question was how, after Christ's justification, all the others became participants in this righteousness, he brought Adam as an example and said: "For if by the trespass of one death reigned... much more those who receive the abundance of grace shall reign in life" (Rom 5:17).
He does not resolve the question about Adam. But by Adam's example he resolves his own question and proves that there is greater reason to allow that He Who died for them should have over them whatever authority He wills.
To most people it seems not wholly reasonable that all should suffer punishment for one man's sin. Yet it is far more reasonable, and more fitting to God, that all should be justified because of one man's service.
Still, the Apostle did not resolve the first difficulty. The more obscure it remained, the more strongly the Jew's mouth was stopped. The perplexity concerning the latter difficulty passed over to the first, and the latter became clearer from it.
So here also Paul resolves the question by means of new difficulties, because he was disputing with Jews. Therefore he does not fully resolve the examples presented by him. As one disputing with Jews, he was not obliged to do so.
Nevertheless, by these examples he explains everything he needed. Why are you amazed, he says, that some of the Jews were saved and others were not? Everyone knows that the same thing happened in ancient times with the patriarchs.
Why is Isaac alone called Abraham's seed, though Abraham was the father of Ishmael and many others? Was it not because Ishmael's mother was a slave? But what relation does that have to the son?
Still, I will not argue. Let Ishmael be excluded because of his mother. But what shall we say about Keturah's children? Were they not free, and were they not born of a free woman? Why, then, were they not counted worthy of the advantages given to Isaac?
And why do I speak of them? Rebecca was Isaac's only wife. She bore two sons, both from Isaac. Yet those born of the same father and the same mother, who caused her the same birth pangs, being of one blood, from one womb, and, moreover, twins, received unequal rights.
Here you can no longer refer to the mother's slavery, as in regard to Ishmael. Nor can you say that they were not born from one womb, as in regard to the children of Keturah and Sarah. Here the birth pangs were felt at the same hour.
Therefore Paul, as though considering the final example clearer, says that this happened not only with Isaac, "but also when Rebecca had conceived by one, even by our father Isaac."