The first four verses of the first chapter of John's Gospel may be called a preface or introduction to all four Evangelists. This is an entrance into the heavenly history of Jesus Christ.
Here the heavens seem to open, and the Word appears. He is presented as Creator. He comes "to His own," and to those who receive Him, He gives "power to become children of God" (Jn 1:11-12).
This is the summary of the whole life of Jesus Christ, the purpose of His appearing. Then the Evangelists relate in greatest detail how all this took place.
Here the eternal Word is only presented in all clarity. In the detailed description of the life of Jesus Christ, only the Son of Man will be visible, while the Word is as though hidden.
One may say that the heavens are as though hidden again. Darkness again spreads in Judea and Rome. Only something bright and divine shone through.
In Judea it shone through the law, and in Rome through certain kinds of knowledge.
Then follows the narrative of the Evangelist Luke (Lk 1:5). The Word described by John, like lightning, illumined everything, and then is hidden again and makes one go as though by touch.
In Saint Luke, the field of activity of this Word is presented, as it were. What are Zacharias and Elizabeth in comparison with Caesars and Roman nobles, that the Evangelist should concern himself with them?
Here what the Apostle said is as though fulfilled: "The base things of the world and the things despised God has chosen" (1 Cor 1:28).
Why did the first three Evangelists not give a description like John's? They stopped at earthly events, while John begins from heaven.
Of course, this is because, as the Apostle says, "the manifestation of the Spirit is given to each for the profit of all" (1 Cor 12:7). The Holy Spirit gives gifts "to each one as He wills" (1 Cor 12:11).
But does the Holy Spirit in distributing gifts conform to no laws? No. The difference in His gifts depends on the difference in the intellectual and moral powers of those who receive them.
In John we see deep love. This deep love produced an equally deep knowledge. In him the Person of Jesus Christ appears preeminently as divine.
Such a supplement made by John was greatly needed, as Saint Chrysostom notes. The first three Gospels would not have been sufficient.
Moreover, many heretics stopped precisely at what was human in the Person of Jesus Christ. In defense of their earthliness, they could refer to the three Evangelists, in whom, they claimed, only the earthly deeds of Jesus Christ are discussed.
Therefore John's theology was also supremely necessary. He became, as it were, a Christian metaphysician by necessity, yet not without harmony with his spirit and his lofty love.
It is impossible fully to explain and define these first verses of John's Gospel. Interpreters who dissected especially the first verse according to the rules of necrological interpretive art resemble those who divided the garments of Jesus Christ (Jn 19:23).
On the contrary, one should treat this verse as one treats the seamless tunic, woven from above. To strain to understand it means to understand nothing.
All the thoughts and words here are irreplaceable, as Saint Chrysostom beautifully observes.
"If something is insufficient," he says, "for representing the whole, do not be surprised. For the matter concerns God, concerning Whom nothing can be adequately said or thought."
And elsewhere he says, "No single word is sufficient to express the divine Word. If anyone asserts that he can say anything about God, he thereby plainly shows that he does not understand God."
"There is no name that could fully express God. Thus one cannot comprehend Him entirely."
But as what is He presented by John? And on this basis, as what may we represent Him? He is presented by him as God the Word.
It is clear that this Person is divine. Whether we say that God is the Word, or that the Word is God, taking the word as predicate or as subject, the thought is one and the same.
It is evident, however, that this Word is inseparably united with God (Jn 1:2). What kind of inseparability is this? Is the union only moral, or physical? It must be both.
One must not understand two Gods here, for nothing so terrified the Jews as polytheism. Therefore, if John had meant two gods here, he would certainly have had to make a qualification.
But distinction is also noticeable here. Otherwise, how would He be another, if He did not differ in any way from the first?
This distinction is expressed in the first verse of his Gospel: "And the Word was προς τον Θεον." By this word, προς, he shows that He has His own personhood.
Some will say that our knowledge of Greek does not yet guarantee such an interpretation. Yet Saints Chrysostom and Basil the Great, before all the people of Constantinople, who surely knew their native language excellently, said that here προς signifies personhood.
Chrysostom says: "When John says of the Word that He was in the beginning, lest anyone consider Him an unbegotten God from eternity, John says that He was 'from the beginning' 'with God.'"
"And lest anyone consider Him a word uttered aloud, John adds the Greek term προς, showing that He was not in God, but with God."
Then he says that this Word was God Himself: "And the Word was God." Yet this distinction in no way harms the dogma of monotheism.
In this verse the whole teaching on the Trinity is contained. Further, John says that "the Word was God," without the article, Θεος.
Idle critics found certain passages in Philo where, as they claim, he used the word Θεος without the article when speaking of a lower, created god.
But Saint Chrysostom says: "If John here meant a word, or a created god, what prevented him from saying, 'In the beginning God created the Word'?"
"And the Only-begotten Son of God Himself, in His humility, would not have failed to say that He was created, if He truly were so."
"He might sooner have kept silence about His majesty and Godhead than conceal that He had been created."
Here is, once and for all, the answer to objections against the divinity of Jesus Christ.
The beginning of John's Gospel seems similar to the beginning of Moses' book of Genesis, but there is also an extraordinary difference. John says, "In the beginning was the Word," not "was created."
Why did John call Jesus Christ "the Word"? This is a most important question in Christian history and dogmatics.
Is the name his own, or borrowed? It is most probable that it is borrowed.
It could have been borrowed either from Christian writers or from uninspired Jewish writers, such as Philo, who in places speaks of the Word, λογος, of God. It could also have been borrowed from pagan writers, such as Plato.
The Apostle Paul proves that something could be borrowed from Greek writers, for in his epistles he sometimes cites Greek verses (Acts 17:28).
In the New Testament the Word is mentioned very often. In the Old Testament it is rarer, as in Jesus son of Sirach (Sir 43:28). There the word is presented as a special action of Providence.
In the Wisdom of Solomon (Wis 18:15), personality is as it were ascribed to the word. It is presented in the likeness of an angel who strikes the Egyptians and guides the Israelites through the wilderness.
In the Wisdom of Solomon (Wis 7:21), "Wisdom" is described as a Person. She is presented as passing from generation to generation into the souls of the righteous (Wis 7:27).
By this the Incarnation of the Word is as though hinted at; compare Sir 1:9-10 and Bar 3:28-38.
Yet in the Old Testament, "Wisdom" is presented more than "word." Therefore the Evangelist John did not himself invent this word.
He borrowed it from the Old Testament biblical writers, for there is no need to borrow from others when one can borrow from one's own.
However, he also had in view the "word" used by Greek writers, who had an incorrect understanding of the word.
It is more than probable that, by his depiction of the Word, he wished to correct the errors of pagans and Jews who had written about the word.
But why did the writers of the Old Testament use "word"? And why did John find it fitting and, so to speak, unable to choose a better term for describing the second Person of the Holy Trinity?
The chief reason is that this name is truly the most fitting in this case. John saw no better one.
John himself treasures this name, and uses it only twice more in the most important and decisive cases (1 Jn 1:1; Rev 19:13).
Amid exalted and divine revelations, he did not forget his "Word" (Rev 19:13).
Of course, this expression does not fully correspond to the reality, nor can such a correspondence be found. At least it contains a small shade and faint likeness of the truth.
The second Person of the Most Holy Trinity, His relation to God the Father, and His independent subsistence cannot be expressed more fittingly in human language than by the word Λογος.
For us now Λογος mostly means an external word. For the Greeks it meant thought, mind itself, and the external word.
The holy fathers also present the reason why John called Jesus Christ the Word. Saint Chrysostom says that John called Him by this name so that no one would think the Son was begotten by the Father with passion.
He also did so because this Word proclaimed to us the will of the heavenly Father. Not only to us, but He constantly proclaims it to all, and everything descends from the Father only through Him.
One cannot fail to note here the God-befitting character of the expressions, as the holy fathers also observed. The subject is lofty. Men would have written very much about it, yet in much there would have been little.
John wrote little, but expressed everything. This little was given to him from above. Hence the firmness and decisiveness in his words. Not the slightest wavering is noticeable.
Thus it is fitting for one taught from above to speak. Saint Chrysostom says: "If someone suddenly carried a man standing on the seashore and seeing mountains and forests to the middle of the sea, he would see the same things from there in precisely the same way."
Thus "in the beginning was" means nothing other than eternal and infinite being.