John Chrysostom
Then Christ speaks also of the very manner of the glory, and how He will glorify the Father: "since Thou hast given Him authority over all flesh, that all whom Thou hast given Him" may not perish.
The glory of God truly consists in always doing good. What then does "since Thou hast given Him authority over all flesh" mean?
By this He shows that the work of preaching will not be limited to the Jews alone, but will extend to the whole inhabited world. He lays the beginning of the calling of the Gentiles.
Since He had said, "Do not go into the way of the Gentiles" (Mt 10:5), and later would say, "Go, teach all nations" (Mt 28:19), He now shows that this also is pleasing to the Father.
Read more (575 words)
Indeed, the preaching to the Gentiles greatly scandalized the Jews, and even the disciples. Even afterward, the disciples did not easily permit themselves to enter into communion with the Gentiles until they received instruction from the Spirit.
No small scandal for the Jews arose from this. Therefore, even after so great a manifestation of the Spirit, Peter came to Jerusalem and scarcely escaped reproach after telling them about the sheet (Acts 11:1-19).
What then does "He gave Him authority over all flesh" mean? I ask the heretics: when did He receive this authority? Before the creation of men, or after their creation?
He Himself says that it was after the Crucifixion and Resurrection. For then He said, "All authority has been given to Me. Go, teach all nations" (Mt 28:18-19).
What then? Did He not have authority over His own work? Did He only create men, and after creating them have no authority over them?
But in former times also He is seen doing all things Himself. Some He punishes as sinners. Others, when they turn, He corrects: "Shall I hide from Abraham what I am about to do?" He says (Gen 18:17).
Others He honors as righteous. Or did He have authority then, lose it now, and receive it again? What demon could say this?
If the authority is one and the same then and now, since "as the Father raises the dead and gives them life, so the Son gives life to whom He wills" (Jn 5:21), what does the saying mean?
He was about to send the apostles to the Gentiles. Since He had said, "I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel" (Mt 15:24), He shows that this mission is pleasing to the Father.
He does this so that they would not regard it as an innovation. That He speaks of this with great condescension is not surprising.
In this way He was then edifying them, the apostles, and those who would come after. As I have said, by such an excess of condescension He always clearly teaches that He speaks accommodatively.
What does "over all flesh" mean? It is evident that not all believed. So far as depended on Him, all believed. If they did not heed His words, the fault is not with the Teacher, but with those who do not receive the teaching.
"That He should give eternal life to all whom Thou hast given Him." Do not be surprised that here too He speaks in a human manner.
He does this for the reasons already given, and because He always avoided saying anything great about Himself. Such speech was unpleasant to His hearers, who still did not think anything great about Him.
Therefore John, when speaking in his own person, does not speak this way, but raises his word to a lofty height. He says, "All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made" (Jn 1:3).
He also says, "In Him was life" (Jn 1:4), "He was the Light" (Jn 1:9), and "He came to His own" (Jn 1:11).
He does not mean that Christ would not have authority unless He had received it. Rather, Christ Himself gave others authority "to become children of God" (Jn 1:12).
In the same way Paul calls Him equal to God. But He Himself asks as an ordinary man, saying, "that He should give eternal life to all whom Thou hast given Him."