Supposing that this had clearly formed itself in the minds of the Jews, he turns to his interlocutor and asks on his own behalf: after all that I have said, what do you think? Do we have advantages? Can we hide behind them and shield ourselves from God's judgment?
He places himself among them in order to soften the obvious and unpleasant answer. Yet the Jews themselves could have asked the same thing.
The Apostle did not say plainly that privileges do not hide one from judgment. He conducted the discourse so that the Jews themselves would draw this conclusion. Yet they did not want to do so.
So they ask the question: What then? Tell us plainly, do we have an advantage? Do we possess any privilege? The Apostle satisfies their desire and now speaks plainly: "Not at all."
There were privileges, but our deeds stripped them of all meaning. Because of these deeds, we have remained without any privileges at all.
Blessed Theophylact writes: "Although they, that is, the Jews, did have some advantage as those chosen by God, yet by their deeds they dishonored God, Who had honored and chosen them. Therefore they no longer have any advantage, but are subject to greater condemnation.
"He speaks as if in the person of the Jews: What then? Do we have an advantage? That is, do we possess any privilege? Are we superior to others? Are we Jews, who received the law and circumcision, more pleasing to God than the rest?
"Not at all, that is, not in the least. For the Jews, to say no more, sinned just as the Gentiles did."
Such a sentence from the mouth of the Apostle Paul could have seemed harsh and hindered the beneficial effect of his accusatory discourse. Therefore he hastens to avert this, saying: I am not saying this. The Prophets long before me accused us of this in advance.
"We have before proved," proetiasametha, may also be translated, "we were before reproached," or "we were previously accused," as our Slavonic translation does in its marginal note.
Both according to the flow of the discourse and according to the Apostle's intention, this should be considered the translation closest to the original.
The Apostle places himself among the Jews, although he had long since gone out from them. He does this to show that he in no way excludes himself from these prior condemnations.
He also shows that these very condemnations moved him to flee from God's wrath, on their basis, under the shelter of grace. Having shown this, he seeks to dispose them also to imitate him more quickly in this matter.
He speaks as if saying: this was foreseen long ago. Therefore there is no reason to marvel at it, to shrink from it, or to deny it. Rather, after acknowledging its truth, one should seek the surest way to escape the accusation.
There is no need to oppose the literal rendering: "we have before reproached," that is, we have previously reproached, accused, and proved guilt.
If this is taken so, it will mean that the Apostle is referring here to his preceding discourse. In it, he truly proved that both Gentiles and Jews are equally under sin.
"To be under sin" means that they are sinful and without excuse in their sinfulness. They are subject to judgment and condemnation for it.
For they did not sin by some compulsion, but by their own evil will. They were not brought under sin by a violent yoke, but rushed toward it through self-pleasing and sank into it.
"To be under sin" may mean both that they sin and that they stand under God's wrath because of sin.
"Both Jews and Greeks." The thought is this: Jews no less than Greeks, or like Greeks, or just as Greeks. For the discourse concerns the Jews, and the prophetic reproofs were addressed to them. The Greeks stand here by way of comparison.