The Church Fathers on this verse

Romans 3:9Meaning & Commentary from the Church Fathers

What then? Do we excel them? No, not so. For we have charged both Jews and Greeks, that they are all under sin.

Douay-Rheims

τι ουν προεχομεθα ου παντως προητιασαμεθα γαρ ιουδαιους τε και ελληνας παντας υφ αμαρτιαν ειναι

Greek (Byzantine text)

The Church Fathers on this verse

9 Church Fathers comment on this verse

John Chrysostom

4th centuryChurch Father

The Apostle accused the Greeks and accused the Jews. It remained, finally, to speak of the justification accomplished through faith. For if the natural law did not help, and the written law did nothing more, but both even became a burden to those who did not use them as they ought, showing that they became worthy of greater punishment, then salvation by grace was finally necessary. So tell us about this, Paul, and reveal it. But the Apostle does not yet dare, fearing the shamelessness of the Jews. He again continues the discourse about their accusation.

Theophylact of Bulgaria

11th centuryChurch Father

Having said above that the Jews have some advantage because the law was entrusted and handed over to them, he now proves that they have no advantage at all by their deeds. Since they did not preserve what was entrusted to them, they will undergo greater condemnation. Therefore, although they had some advantage as those chosen by God, yet by their deeds they dishonored the God who honored and chose them. Thus they not only no longer have any advantage, but will undergo greater condemnation. He speaks as though from the person of the Jews: What then? Do we have an advantage? Do we surpass others? Are we Jews, who received the law and circumcision, more pleasing to God than the rest? Not at all.

Ephraem the Syrian

4th centuryChurch Father

“What profit is there for us if we have the advantage?” That is, what profit is there for us, if it seems so to you? Do we condemn Jews and Gentiles when we say what is written: “There is none righteous, not one, and none who seeks God”? But He mixed all together and placed the Gentiles with the Jews, so that He might declare both to be under sin.

Ambrosiaster

4th centuryChurch Father

Taking the circumstances into account, we show that both Jews and Greeks are all guilty, and therefore it is vain to serve the law. Paul first shows that the Greeks are guilty with respect to the natural law, and that they did not receive the law of Moses. This is the worst and gravest matter (cf. Rom 2:14). After this he reveals the guilt of the Jews, who seemed to live under the law and defend their dignity by the merits of the forefathers. Yet they rejected the promise given to their forefathers when they did not receive the grace of God (cf. Acts 6:8-7:53).

Theodoret of Cyrus

5th centuryChurch Father

The divine Apostle, as we have already said, intends to prove that the Incarnation of our God and Savior Jesus Christ took place by necessity.

Therefore he spoke of those living outside the Law and those under the Law. He showed that the former transgressed the natural law, while the latter transgressed the Law of Moses, and that both were worthy of the severest punishment.

In this he imitated the best physician, who first makes the sufferers see the gravity of the disease, and only afterward offers the healing medicine as aid.

So too, after exposing the lawlessness of both groups and showing that they are liable and worthy of punishment, he finally offers the medicine of faith. He reveals the love for mankind in the divine economy and says:

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“Then what do we have over them? For we have already charged that both Jews and Greeks are all under sin. As it is written: There is none righteous, no, not one.

There is none who understands; there is none who seeks God. They have all turned aside; together they have become useless. There is none who does good, no, not one” (Ps 13:2-3).

“Their throat is an open grave. With their tongues they practiced deceit. The poison of asps is under their lips” (Ps 139:3). “Their mouth is full of cursing and bitterness” (Ps 9:28).

“Their feet are swift to shed blood” (Prov 1:16). “Destruction and misery are in their ways, and the way of peace they have not known” (Is 59:7-8). “There is no fear of God before their eyes” (Ps 35:2).

In what was interpreted before this, the Apostle compared circumcision and uncircumcision, and added: “What advantage then has the Jew?” (Rom 3:1). Here, intending to show the excellence of evangelical grace, he said: “What then do we have over them?”

For we have proved that both those living outside the Law and those living under the Law sinned. He also joined to this the testimony of David, as very fitting to the present subject.

He does this chiefly out of concern for brevity. Otherwise, he would have summoned all the prophets to accuse the Jews, since they said similar and still more grievous things about them. Therefore the Apostle added: See Rom 3:19.

Ivanov A.V.

19th centuryChurch Father

“What then? Are we better?” Do we have an advantage? The advantage indicated in Rom 3:2 remains a real advantage of the Jews. It even serves as the basis for the advantages of which the Jews were so proud, such as circumcision and descent from Abraham.

The Apostle now asks whether this advantage gives the Jews any right to justification before God. He answers: “Not at all.” To confirm his words, he cites a whole series of testimonies from the Old Testament.

By them he proves that among men there was not one person who, by his own powers, could do anything good. He also notes that what is said applies to the Jews themselves, as those who are under the Law.

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“That every mouth may be stopped” does not mean that the Jews sinned in order that their mouths might be stopped. Rather, they were rebuked so that they might recognize their sin (Chrysostom).

The Apostle's teaching about the sinfulness of all people does not contradict the Old Testament's references to many persons who were righteous before God and did what was right.

The Apostle himself, in the Epistle to the Hebrews (chapter 11), gives a whole series of righteous persons from the Old Testament. But they were righteous by faith, not by works of the Law.

Portraying those under the Law in dark colors, the Apostle does not touch those justified by faith, or, more precisely, he does not touch their righteousness by faith. He says that all people, even the righteous, could not be justified while they hoped for salvation from the works of the Law.

Michail Cheraskov

19th centuryChurch Father

But then a new objection arises on the question of justification. The Apostle formulates it thus: “But if our unrighteousness demonstrates the righteousness of God, what shall we say? Is God unjust when He inflicts wrath?”

This refers to His wrath from heaven, as was said above (Rom 1:18), against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men.

So that this very objection, because of its sharpness from the Apostle’s lips, would not scandalize the Roman Christians, he finds it necessary to add a reservation: “I speak according to human reasoning.”

The Apostle explains the groundlessness of the objection by arguing from the contrary. If even a measure of justice were granted to it, one would have to reject altogether the property of God as Judge of the universe.

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For every sinner, whether Jew or Gentile, would begin to reason thus: “If the truthfulness of God abounds through my falsehood to His glory, why am I still judged as a sinner?” (Rom 3:7).

Should one not go even further and say: “And why not do evil that good may come, as some slander us and say that we teach? Their condemnation is just!” (Rom 3:8-9).

The Apostle cries out with indignation against all such reasoning.

Nikanor (Kamenski)

19th centuryChurch Father

Looking at the Hebrews not as guardians of God’s promise, but as sinful men, the Apostle finds that in this respect they do not differ from the Gentiles. They are no less sinful than they.

He proves this by many passages of Holy Scripture. These speak of the great sinfulness of mankind and apply equally to Gentiles and Hebrews.

From this it naturally follows that, if all are considered morally and according to works, no one can be found righteous. Those clothed in sinful flesh cannot perfectly perform all the works of the law.

Yet according to the law, “Cursed is everyone who does not continue in all the words of this law, to do them” (Deut 27:26).

The law is the indicator of sins of every kind. Therefore no sinful person can be justified before it in anything.

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The Apostle often unfolded these thoughts about the law for those who boasted in the law. He did this to show its true worth and meaning, and thereby restrain the pride of the foolish Hebrews.

The Apostle used the expression “all flesh” shall not be justified to show where the source of weakness lies. It is not in the law, but in us.

“As men bearing flesh, we cannot fulfill the law. Therefore there is no thought that anyone could be justified by the old law,” says Bishop Theophan.

In listing the kinds and forms of sinful men’s depravity, the Apostle points to a general turning away from the desire to know God and serve Him. He points to the wish to walk in one’s own ways, to please only oneself, and not to serve others.

He also points to mutual deceit, hidden ill will, slander, cunning and malicious treachery, and readiness for the most terrible murders. In all this, the fear of God the Rewarder is wholly forgotten.

It is clear that sinners of this kind not only cannot receive justification from God by themselves. Little by little, they also bring corruption into the whole earthly world.

Everywhere they produce discord, disorder, and malice. Men became like beasts and deadly serpents to one another, as many Roman writers of that time clearly testified.

But the Apostle Paul depicts human sinfulness on the basis of more ancient and more reliable God-inspired writings. In this way he removes every foundation for the arrogance and haughtiness of the Hebrews, who vainly boasted in the works of the law.

He also urges all to hasten to God with full repentance and to receive grace through faith.

Theophan the Recluse

19th centuryChurch Father

Who is asking? One may suppose that the Apostle asks in his own person, placing himself among the Jews. One may also suppose that the Jews are asking.

The Jew had put forward the question, "What advantage then has the Jew?" He hoped to shield himself from condemnation by the Jew's privilege. In answering this question, the Apostle said directly, "Much in every way."

Yet in the explanation that followed, he set forth arguments showing that this abundance did not justify the Jews. Despite it all, they could not escape judgment. Rather, for this very reason they were all the more subject to it.

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Supposing that this had clearly formed itself in the minds of the Jews, he turns to his interlocutor and asks on his own behalf: after all that I have said, what do you think? Do we have advantages? Can we hide behind them and shield ourselves from God's judgment?

He places himself among them in order to soften the obvious and unpleasant answer. Yet the Jews themselves could have asked the same thing.

The Apostle did not say plainly that privileges do not hide one from judgment. He conducted the discourse so that the Jews themselves would draw this conclusion. Yet they did not want to do so.

So they ask the question: What then? Tell us plainly, do we have an advantage? Do we possess any privilege? The Apostle satisfies their desire and now speaks plainly: "Not at all."

There were privileges, but our deeds stripped them of all meaning. Because of these deeds, we have remained without any privileges at all.

Blessed Theophylact writes: "Although they, that is, the Jews, did have some advantage as those chosen by God, yet by their deeds they dishonored God, Who had honored and chosen them. Therefore they no longer have any advantage, but are subject to greater condemnation.

"He speaks as if in the person of the Jews: What then? Do we have an advantage? That is, do we possess any privilege? Are we superior to others? Are we Jews, who received the law and circumcision, more pleasing to God than the rest?

"Not at all, that is, not in the least. For the Jews, to say no more, sinned just as the Gentiles did."

Such a sentence from the mouth of the Apostle Paul could have seemed harsh and hindered the beneficial effect of his accusatory discourse. Therefore he hastens to avert this, saying: I am not saying this. The Prophets long before me accused us of this in advance.

"We have before proved," proetiasametha, may also be translated, "we were before reproached," or "we were previously accused," as our Slavonic translation does in its marginal note.

Both according to the flow of the discourse and according to the Apostle's intention, this should be considered the translation closest to the original.

The Apostle places himself among the Jews, although he had long since gone out from them. He does this to show that he in no way excludes himself from these prior condemnations.

He also shows that these very condemnations moved him to flee from God's wrath, on their basis, under the shelter of grace. Having shown this, he seeks to dispose them also to imitate him more quickly in this matter.

He speaks as if saying: this was foreseen long ago. Therefore there is no reason to marvel at it, to shrink from it, or to deny it. Rather, after acknowledging its truth, one should seek the surest way to escape the accusation.

There is no need to oppose the literal rendering: "we have before reproached," that is, we have previously reproached, accused, and proved guilt.

If this is taken so, it will mean that the Apostle is referring here to his preceding discourse. In it, he truly proved that both Gentiles and Jews are equally under sin.

"To be under sin" means that they are sinful and without excuse in their sinfulness. They are subject to judgment and condemnation for it.

For they did not sin by some compulsion, but by their own evil will. They were not brought under sin by a violent yoke, but rushed toward it through self-pleasing and sank into it.

"To be under sin" may mean both that they sin and that they stand under God's wrath because of sin.

"Both Jews and Greeks." The thought is this: Jews no less than Greeks, or like Greeks, or just as Greeks. For the discourse concerns the Jews, and the prophetic reproofs were addressed to them. The Greeks stand here by way of comparison.

Cross references

Passages read together with this verse.

The original text

Greek text, 15 words with lemma, transliteration and Strong’s number. Tap to expand.

  1. Τί
    ti
    who
    G5101 · τίς
  2. οὖν
    oun
    therefore
    G3767 · οὖν
  3. προεχόμεθα
    proechometha
    I excel
    G4284 · προέχω
  4. οὐ
    ou
    no
    G3756 · οὐ
  5. πάντως
    pantōs
    entirely
    G3843 · πάντως
  6. προῃτιασάμεθα
    proētiasametha
    I make a prior accusation
    G4256 · προαιτιάομαι
  7. γὰρ
    gar
    for
    G1063 · γάρ
  8. Ἰουδαίους
    ioudaious
    Jewish
    G2453 · Ἰουδαῖος
  9. τε
    te
    and
    G5037 · τε
  10. καὶ
    kai
    and
    G2532 · καί
  11. Ἕλληνας
    hellēnas
    a Hellene
    G1672 · Ἕλλην
  12. πάντας
    pantas
    all
    G3956 · πᾶς
  13. ὑφ᾽
    hyph
    by
    G5259 · ὑπό
  14. ἁμαρτίαν
    hamartian
    a sin
    G266 · ἁμαρτία
  15. εἶναι
    einai
    I am
    G1510 · εἰμί