John Chrysostom
But why does He continually say: "I am not in the world," and, "since I leave them, I entrust them to Thee," and, "while I was in the world, I kept them"? Whoever understands these words simply will fall into many absurdities.
Is it really possible to suppose that He was not in the world, and that, departing, He entrusted them to another? Those words are spoken as by a mere man who is parting from them forever.
Do you see that He says much in a human way and in condescension to their understanding? They thought that in His presence they would be safer. Therefore He says: "While I was with them, I kept them."
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Yet He had said: "I will come to you" (Jn 14:18), and, "I am with you always, to the end" (Mt 28:20). Why then does He now speak as though He truly intended to be separated from them?
As I have said, this is condescension to their thought, so that they might be somewhat calmed when they heard Him speak in this way and entrust them to the Father. Since, after many consolations from Him, they were still not persuaded, He finally turns His speech to the Father, showing His great love for them.
He speaks as though saying: Since Thou callest Me to Thyself, establish them in safety, for I am coming to Thee. What do You say? Can You not guard them Yourself? Certainly I can. Why then do You say this? "That they may have My joy fulfilled" (Jn 17:13). That is, so that they may not be troubled, being still imperfect.
By these words He showed that He said all this for their consolation and joy. Otherwise His words would appear contradictory. "But now I am not in the world, and these are in the world." This is what the disciples actually thought, and He adapts Himself to them.
If He had said, "I will keep them," they would not have believed so readily. Therefore He says: "Holy Father, keep them in Thy name" (v. 11), that is, by Thy help. "While I was in the world, I kept them in Thy name."
Again He speaks as man and as Prophet, because nowhere is He seen doing anything in the name of God. "Those whom Thou hast given Me I have kept, and none of them is lost except the son of perdition, that the Scripture might be fulfilled" (v. 12).
Elsewhere He says: "Of all that He has given Me I shall lose nothing" (Jn 6:39). But not only Judas was lost. Many others were lost afterward. How then does He say, "I shall lose nothing"? As far as depends on Me, I shall lose nothing.
In another place He shows this even more clearly, saying: "I will not cast him out" (Jn 6:37). It is not My fault. I do not drive away, and I do not abandon. If someone falls away of himself, I do not draw him by force.
"But now I am coming to Thee" (v. 13). Do you see how humanly this discourse is framed? Therefore, if anyone wishes on this basis to lower the Son, he will also lower the Father.
Look how from the beginning He seems at times to teach Him and explain to Him, and at times to command Him. He seems to teach when He says, "I pray not for the world." He seems to command when He says, "I have kept them until now, and none is lost," and, "so do Thou keep them."
Again He says: "They were Thine, and Thou gavest them to Me," and, "while I was in the world, I kept them." The solution to everything is that all these words were spoken in condescension to their weakness.
After saying, "None of them is lost except the son of perdition," He added: "that the Scripture might be fulfilled." Of what Scripture does He speak? Of that which foretells many things concerning Him.
Yet Judas was not lost in order that Scripture might be fulfilled. Concerning this I have already said much before. It is a special manner of Scripture to present what later comes to pass as though it were the cause.
If we do not wish to err, we must carefully examine everything: the character of the speaker, the subject of the speech, and the laws proper to Scripture. "Brethren, be not children in understanding" (1 Cor 14:20).