John Chrysostom
If, he says, perfection had been through the Levitical priesthood. Having spoken of Melchizedek, shown how much higher he was than Abraham, and explained the great difference between them, he now begins to show the difference between the covenants themselves.
One is imperfect, the other perfect. Yet even now he does not approach the matter directly, but first reasons about the priesthood and the covenant. For unbelievers, proofs from things already accepted and formerly known were more persuasive.
He proved that Melchizedek was far higher than Levi and Abraham, since he appeared as priest in relation to them. Now he proves the same from another side.
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From what side? From the present priesthood and the Jewish one. Look at his great wisdom. The very point by which Christ seemed to be separated from the priesthood, since He was not according to the order of Aaron, he brings forward as proof of His priesthood and excludes the others.
He does this by presenting himself as though perplexed, asking why Christ is called priest not according to the order of Aaron, and then resolving the difficulty.
I too, he says, am perplexed why He was not according to the order of Aaron. He expresses this in the words: If perfection had been through the Levitical priesthood. The words, what further need was there, intensify the thought.
If Christ according to the flesh had been priest according to the order of Melchizedek first, and only afterward the law and the priesthood according to Aaron had appeared, then one could rightly say that the latter was more perfect. Introduced later, it would abolish the first.
But if Christ appears afterward and receives another form of priesthood, then the imperfection of all that came before is evident.
Let us suppose, he says, that all former things were fulfilled and there was nothing imperfect in the former priesthood. Why, then, was there still need for another priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not be named according to the order of Aaron?
Why does God leave Aaron and introduce another priesthood, that of Melchizedek? If perfection had been through the Levitical priesthood means this: if through the Levitical priesthood perfection had been attained in works, teaching, and life.
Notice how gradually he advances. After saying that Christ is according to the order of Melchizedek, he proved that the priesthood according to the order of Melchizedek is higher, because Melchizedek himself is higher.
Then he proves the same with respect to time, namely, that Christ comes after Aaron and is therefore higher. What do the following words mean: for with it the people received the law? What does with it mean?
They are guided by it, accomplish everything through it, and one cannot say that it was given for others. With it the people received the law, that is, they used it and had used it.
One cannot say that, being perfect in itself, it did not guide the people. The people received the law with it means they were guided by it. What need, then, would there be for another priesthood, if this one were perfect?