Acts 15:19Meaning & Commentary from the Church Fathers

He especially dwells on what had not been written about, so that, by healing their mind through a reminder of what had been allowed, he might easily prove this also. "Therefore I judge that we should not trouble those from among the Gentiles who are turning to God," that is, we should not turn them away. If God has called them, and observance of the law turns them away, then in this case we are warring against God. He said well, "from among the Gentiles," thereby showing both God's providence concerning them from above and their obedience and readiness for the call. What does "I judge" mean? In other words: I speak with authority that this is so. He did not say, "do not scandalize them," or "pervert them," as Paul said to the Galatians (Gal 1:7). Rather, he said, "do not trouble them," which signifies no other action than burdening.

Therefore they are unnecessary for Christians, whoever they may be, Jews or Gentiles by origin. It is remarkable that this is the decision of a strict observer of the law, one who for his strictness in the law was called "the Just."

Moreover, since sensuality and vengeance were objects of religious veneration among many Gentiles, they should abstain from fornication and vengefulness. They should not do to others what they do not want done to themselves, see Mt 7:12 and Lk 6:31. In many Greek texts these final words are absent, but they are present in Reineccius's variants. As for the words about the weekly reading of the law in the synagogues, they were probably spoken to show how difficult the relationship would be. This concerns Christians who had not yet left the synagogues, and still more the Jews. It would be difficult if Gentile Christians did not observe the indicated chief rules of external religious and moral purity. They could no longer be granted any participation in the synagogues. Yet the readings there could, for a time, have a beneficial effect on all. Apart from them, the Jews could not beneficially act upon the Gentiles in fulfillment of the stated prophecy. Thus the Apostle James spoke about this, partly yielding, as it were, to the demands of the Judaizers. Yet he did so in an entirely different spirit, one of reconciliation, and in a different direction, religious and moral. According to Saint John Chrysostom's explanation, "James applies a medicine. Peter proved what needed to be laid down as a rule, that the law need not be observed. James speaks about what had already been allowed before. He especially dwells on what had not been proposed, so that by healing their mind through a reminder of what had been allowed, he might more easily prove what was required. Although this concerns bodily matters, it is necessary to abstain from them, because they produced great evil. And so that someone might not object, 'Why do we not prescribe the same to the Jews?' he adds, 'Moses has continually spoken to them about this.' See what condescension! Where the law caused no harm, the apostle left it as their instructor. Meanwhile, he granted grace that constrains nothing. He commanded the Jews to obey it in everything, yet did not subject the Gentile believers to it. Thus, by outwardly honoring it and preserving its authority over its own, he thereby removed the Gentiles from it." Blessed Theophylact, dwelling on the thought of the reading of the law, says: "Before the coming of the Savior, Moses was read every Sabbath only in the synagogues. Afterwards he was read without hindrance in the Churches of Christ, and is read to this day." Consequently, even now the law is honored. Through the prophecies all the nations of the world are drawn to faith and salvation. Thus, one may say, the word of the first bishop of the mother of the Churches is being unfailingly fulfilled. Even the Jews called him Just, as the ancient historian Eusebius reports.