The Church Fathers on this verse

1 Corinthians 7:10Meaning & Commentary from the Church Fathers

But to them that are married, not I, but the Lord, commandeth that the wife depart not from her husband.

Douay-Rheims

τοις δε γεγαμηκοσιν παραγγελλω ουκ εγω αλλ ο κυριος γυναικα απο ανδρος μη χωρισθηναι

Greek (Byzantine text)

The Church Fathers on this verse

10 Church Fathers comment on this verse

John Chrysostom

4th centuryChurch Father

"But to the married I command, yet not I but the Lord" (1 Cor 7:10). Since he is about to repeat a commandment clearly prescribed by Christ, that one must not divorce his wife except in the case of adultery, he says, "not I."

What was said above had not been clearly expressed by Christ, though it agreed with His teaching. But this He set forth clearly. This is the distinction between the expressions, "I" and "not I."

And lest you take the Apostle's words as merely human, he adds, "and I think I also have the Spirit of God" (1 Cor 7:40).

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What, then, is this commandment proclaimed by the Lord to those joined in marriage? "A wife is not to depart from her husband, but even if she does depart, let her remain unmarried or be reconciled to her husband, and a husband is not to leave his wife" (1 Cor 7:10-11).

Since it happens that spouses separate either for continence, or for other reasons, or through displeasure, he says that it would be better if this did not happen at all. But if it has already happened, let the wife remain with her husband.

Let her remain, even if not for union, so that she may know no other man.

With what is it fitting to begin the discourse? With the very words of the Lord, which He utters through blessed Paul. For we must believe that the counsel of the Apostle is the counsel of the Lord.

Thus, by the words, "But to the married I command, yet not I but the Lord" (1 Cor 7:10), and again, "But to the rest I, not the Lord, say" (1 Cor 7:12), the Apostle does not mean that one command belongs to himself and the other to the Lord.

How could he dare to say, or even think, anything displeasing to Christ, and that in the form of a law? He had Christ speaking within him, and he strove to live only that Christ might live in him.

For him, kingdom and life, angels and powers, every other creature, and all things whatsoever held second place after love for Him.

What, then, do the Apostle's words "I" and "not I" mean? They mean that some laws and doctrines Christ taught us Himself, directly, and others through the Apostles.

That He did not Himself establish all laws and doctrines directly, hear what He says: "I still have many things to say to you, but you cannot bear them now" (Jn 16:12).

Thus Christ had already established, "A wife is not to depart from her husband" (1 Cor 7:10), when He was on earth in the flesh. Therefore the Apostle says, "But to the married I command, yet not I but the Lord."

But concerning unbelievers He said nothing to us directly Himself. Rather, He gave the law by moving the soul of Paul.

For this reason the Apostle said, "not the Lord, but I." He did not mean that what he said was human teaching. How could that be?

He meant that the Lord did not deliver this commandment when He lived with the disciples, but later, through him.

Just as the words "the Lord, not I" do not mean that Paul disagrees with Christ's command, so the words "I, not the Lord" do not mean that the Apostle says something peculiar and displeasing to God.

They mean only that this commandment is now being delivered through him.

So also, when speaking about the widow, he says, "but she is happier if she remains as she is, according to my judgment" (1 Cor 7:40).

Then, lest you hear the words "according to my judgment" and think this a human opinion, he removes the misunderstanding and adds, "and I think I also have the Spirit of God" (1 Cor 7:40).

When he speaks from the Spirit and calls it his judgment, we do not therefore call it a human saying. So here also, when he says, "I say, not the Lord," do not suppose this is Paul's word.

He had Christ speaking within him, and he would not have dared to utter such teaching unless he had received this law from Him for us.

Otherwise someone might say to him, "I, as a believer, cannot live with an unbelieving woman, the pure with the impure. You yourself first said that you say this, not the Lord. Where shall I find a safe and firm support?"

Paul would answer him, "Do not fear. For this reason I said that I have Christ speaking in me, and that 'I think I also have the Spirit of God,' so that you may suspect nothing human in my words."

"If this were not so, I would not ascribe such force to my judgments. 'For the thoughts of mortals are uncertain, and our reasonings are prone to error'" (Wis 9:14).

And the whole catholic Church confirms the force of this law by observing it exactly. She would not observe it unless she were fully persuaded that this saying is a commandment of Christ.

Theophylact of Bulgaria

11th centuryChurch Father

"Now to the married I command, yet not I but the Lord." Since the Lord gave a law in clear words that one must not divorce, except only because of adultery (Mt 5:32), the Apostle says: not I, but the Lord. What was said before was not literally legislated by the Lord. Yet Paul's words too are the Lord's words, not human words, for below he says of himself: "I think I also have the Spirit of God" (1 Cor 7:40). "A wife is not to depart from her husband. But even if she does depart, let her remain unmarried or be reconciled to her husband. And a husband is not to leave his wife." Separations, he says, occur from love of continence, or from faintheartedness, or for other reasons. It would be better if there were no separation at all. But if it does occur, then the wife must remain with her husband, if not for intercourse, then so that she may not bring in anyone else. If she cannot exercise self-control, let her be reconciled to her husband.

Ephraem the Syrian

4th centuryChurch Father

To those who have entered marriage, that is, those joined in marriage, the Lord Himself commands: the wife must not separate from her husband.

Jerome of Stridon

4th centuryChurch Father

In agreement with the word of the Lord, the Apostle teaches that a wife must not be dismissed except on account of adultery. He also teaches that a woman who has separated must not marry another while her husband is alive, but should rather be reconciled to her husband.

Theodoret of Cyrus

5th centuryChurch Father

The Apostle recalled the evangelical ordinance, for the Lord said in the Holy Gospel: "Whoever puts away his wife, except for the cause of fornication, makes her commit adultery" (Mt 5:32). Therefore he added: "not I, but the Lord." The phrase, "let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband," does not contradict what was said above: "Do not deprive one another, except by agreement." That was said to those who separate for no other reason than continence. Here he lays down the law for those who part for other reasons. He strives to preserve the marriage bonds indissoluble. Yet, condescending to weakness, he prescribes continence for the one who separates, thereby restraining the dissolution of marriage. By forbidding union with another, he compels both sides to return to the former marriage.

Severian of Gabala

5th centuryChurch Father

The Apostle would not have said this about those who separate for the sake of renouncing the world and dedicating themselves to Christ.

Kochomski S.W.

19th centuryChurch Father

The indissolubility of the marital union is guarded by the evangelical law, "the commandment of the Lord Himself" (Mt 5:32). Having commanded a believing wife not to leave an unbelieving husband, or one remaining in paganism, if he consents to live with her, the Apostle says further: "For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the believing wife; otherwise your children would be unclean, but now they are holy."

Michail Cheraskov

19th centuryChurch Father

In the case of an involuntary rupture of marriage through widowhood, it is good to make use of the celibacy that has come. Yet it is better to act according to one's moral strength. Married people, however, must in no case divorce (1 Cor 7:8-11). "But to the unmarried and to the widows I say: it is good for them to remain even as I am. But if they cannot exercise self-control, let them marry. For it is better to marry than to burn. Now to the married I command, yet not I but the Lord: a wife is not to depart from her husband. ... and a husband is not to leave his wife." How should the Apostle's saying be understood: "not I, but the Lord"?

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Chrysostom explains it thus: "Intending to repeat a commandment clearly prescribed by the Lord, concerning the fact that one must not divorce one's wife except in the case of adultery, the Apostle says: not I, but the Lord. What was said above by the Apostle was not clearly stated by the Lord, though it agrees with His teaching. But this He set forth clearly. Such is the distinction between the expressions 'I' and 'not I.' Yet do not take the Apostle's words as human, for he says: 'I think I also have the Spirit of God'" (below, 1 Cor 7:40).

Nikanor (Kamenski)

19th centuryChurch Father

Having set forth the essential thoughts concerning marriage and celibacy, the Apostle now teaches the indissolubility of marriage, whether both spouses are Christians or only one of them. With respect to Christians, this teaching is proclaimed as the Lord's commandment, already known in the Old Testament. For persons in a mixed marriage, it is given as personal counsel, since the Lord's commandment could not have binding force for an unbelieving person. By commanding the wife not to leave her husband and the husband not to put away his wife, the Apostle Paul seems to give preference to the husband. Yet clearly this is nothing more than the customary way of presenting the form of divorce then in practice.

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That the Apostle in no way lowers the wife before the husband is evident from his words about the unbelieving wife's consent to live with a Christian spouse. Having indicated one highest foundation for the indissolubility of Christian marriage, namely the Lord's commandment, the Apostle gives several reasons in favor of the indissolubility of a mixed marriage. The first reason lies in the sanctification of the unbelieving member of the marriage union. The second lies in the sanctification of the children. Next he speaks of the benefit of remaining in the outward condition in which one is found. Thus the general order of family life is not destroyed, but sustained. Christians are also delivered from many serious reproaches. Saint Chrysostom says of this: "The Apostle said this so that the believing wife would not fear becoming unclean through living with such a husband, an unbeliever, and conversely. On the contrary, the purity of the believing wife overcomes the uncleanness of the unbelieving husband, just as the purity of the believing husband overcomes the uncleanness of the unbelieving wife." In a similar sense, children from mixed marriages are also sanctified. Blessed Theodoret, concerning the Apostle's words, "But if the unbeliever departs," remarks: "What the Apostle said does not contradict the Lord's teaching, but explains it. For, he says, the saving preaching does not introduce confusion into life. On the contrary, it seeks rather the true and God-loving peace."

Theophan the Recluse

19th centuryChurch Father

"Intending to repeat a commandment clearly prescribed by the Lord, concerning the fact that one must not divorce one's wife except in the case of adultery, he says: I command, not I. What was said above was not clearly stated by the Lord, though it agrees with His teaching. But this He set forth clearly. Such is the distinction between the expressions 'I' and 'not I.' Yet do not take the Apostle's words as human, for he says: 'I think I also have the Spirit of God' (1 Cor 7:40)" (Chrysostom). What, then, is the commandment? A wife is not to depart from her husband, and a husband is not to put away his wife. The Lord had chiefly husbands in view when He commanded them not to put away their wives, except for a word of fornication, Mt 5:32.

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But the Apostle turns this commandment especially toward wives. Evidently in Corinth women enjoyed great rights, while husbands allowed themselves great freedom. He had already sobered the latter enough by his strict judgment upon the incestuous man. He then applied this severity to all fornicators and adulterers. Now he humbles the wives, so that they may not hasten quickly toward separations.

Cross references

Passages read together with this verse.

The original text

Greek text, 14 words with lemma, transliteration and Strong’s number. Tap to expand.

  1. Τοῖς
    tois
    the
    G3588 · ὁ
  2. δὲ
    de
    but
    G1161 · δέ
  3. γεγαμηκόσιν
    gegamēkosin
    I marry
    G1060 · γαμέω
  4. παραγγέλλω
    parangellō
    I notify
    G3853 · παραγγέλλω
  5. οὐκ
    ouk
    no
    G3756 · οὐ
  6. ἐγὼ
    egō
    I
    G1473 · ἐγώ
  7. ἀλλὰ
    alla
    but
    G235 · ἀλλά
  8. ὁ
    ho
    the
    G3588 · ὁ
  9. Κύριος
    kyrios
    lord
    G2962 · κύριος
  10. γυναῖκα
    gynaika
    a woman
    G1135 · γυνή
  11. ἀπὸ
    apo
    from
    G575 · ἀπό
  12. ἀνδρὸς
    andros
    a male human being
    G435 · ἀνήρ
  13. μὴ
    mē
    not
    G3361 · μή
  14. χωρισθῆναι
    chōristhēnai
    I separate
    G5563 · χωρίζω